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Equity Linked Debenture

Also written ELD · Equity Linked Debenture (ELD) · Equity Linked Debentures

A debt instrument whose interest is tied to the return on an equity index or basket — the issuer parks most of the principal in bonds to protect capital and spends the rest on options to buy the equity upside.

In plain language

An ELD is a bond wearing an equity costume. The investor lends money to the issuer, as with any debenture, but instead of a fixed coupon the payoff is linked to how the Nifty 50, the Sensex, an individual share or a customised basket of shares performs over the term.

The attraction is the shape of the payoff: the principal is structured to come back whatever the market does, while a share of any rise is passed through. The cost of that shape is the return that was given up to buy it.

How it works

The issuer splits the money it receives into two pots.

Pot one goes into fixed income securities such as bonds, sized so that it grows back to the full principal by maturity. That is where "capital protection" comes from — it is arithmetic, not a guarantee.

Pot two is whatever is left over, and it buys options that deliver the equity exposure. Because pot two is small, the investor gets only a fraction of the index's move, not all of it.

The workbook is careful on two points. First, capital protection should not be read as the absence of credit risk — if the issuer defaults, both pots go with it, which is why ELDs are rated by credit rating agencies like any other debenture. Second, it notes the issuer's side of the trade: a company that raises ELD money intending to spend it on capital expenditure finds very little left for capex once the protection leg and the options have been paid for.

The formula

Zero-coupon leg today = Principal ÷ (1 + market yield)^n

Option budget = Principal − Zero-coupon leg − issuer fees

Maturity payout = Principal × [ 1 + participation rate × index return ]
                  (subject to the principal floor)

A worked example

An investor puts Rs 10,00,000 into a 5-year Nifty-linked ELD from a AAA issuer, when 5-year bonds of that quality yield 7.5%.

To be certain of returning Rs 10 lakh in five years, the issuer must set aside

10,00,000 ÷ 1.075^5 = 10,00,000 ÷ 1.4356 = Rs 6,96,559

That leaves Rs 3,03,441, less fees, to buy five-year call options on the Nifty. Assume those options buy a 70% participation in the index's rise. Three outcomes:

Nifty over 5 yearsPayoutReturn to investor
Down 20%Rs 10,00,0000% over five years
Up 60%10,00,000 × (1 + 0.70 × 0.60) = Rs 14,20,0007.27% a year
Up 120%10,00,000 × (1 + 0.70 × 1.20) = Rs 18,40,00012.97% a year

Compare each with simply buying the AAA bond, which turns Rs 10 lakh into Rs 14,35,629.

In the first case the protection cost the investor Rs 4,35,629 of certain interest. In the second, a 60% rise in the Nifty still left the ELD marginally behind the plain bond. Only the third case pays for the structure. Capital protection is not free; it is paid for out of the return.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 2 (Introduction to Securities Market, section 2.2.7.5) lists ELDs among hybrid and structured instruments. The examinable points are the construction — part of the principal into fixed income for protection, the balance into options for equity participation — and the warning that capital protection does not remove credit risk.

Common exam traps

  • "Capital protection" is a structure, not a guarantee. The workbook is explicit that ELDs still carry credit risk and are credit rated. Issuer default defeats the protection.
  • The workbook calls an ELD a floating rate instrument — but the rate floats with an equity index, not with a money market benchmark such as MIBOR.
  • Participation is a fraction of the index move, because only the leftover after funding the protection buys options. A 60% index rise does not mean a 60% return.
  • An ELD holder owns a debenture, not shares — no voting rights, no dividends from the index constituents, no name on a register.
  • The protection applies at maturity. Selling before then gets whatever the market pays for the bond leg plus the option leg on that day.
  • The issuer's problem is examinable too: raise capex finance through an ELD and most of the money is consumed by the protection and the option premium before any plant is built.

Check yourself

  1. 1.What proportion of distributable surplus cash flow must a REIT or InvIT distribute to its unit holders?

    1. a)At least 50%
    2. b)At least 75%
    3. c)At least 90%
    4. d)The entire amount
    Show the answer

    Answer: (c) At least 90%

    In the case of both, REITs and InvITs, the trust has to distribute at least 90% of the distributable surplus cash flow to the unit holders.

    And the asset composition requirements differ between the two: in the case of REITs, 80% of the asset should be held in the form of real estate asset. Similarly, for InvITs, regulation stipulates that 90% of the unit capital should be invested in revenue generating infrastructure projects.

    So three separate 80/90/90 figures apply — 80% REIT assets, 90% InvIT unit capital, and 90% distribution for both — which is exactly why they get confused.

    What these vehicles are: Real Estate Investment Trusts and Infrastructure Investment Trusts are investment vehicles that pool money from various investors and invest in revenue generating real estate projects and infrastructure projects, respectively.

    They are formed as a trust. They issue units to the investors to raise money. They enjoy favourable tax treatment if they meet the necessary regulatory requirements.

    And the assets can be held indirectly: these assets can be held directly or through a special purpose vehicle.

  2. 2.What is the objective of a passive investor, as stated in the workbook?

    1. a)To earn a rate of return above the return generated by the broader asset class
    2. b)To earn the rate of return that the select asset class provides
    3. c)To minimise the number of securities held in the portfolio
    4. d)To earn a spread between the buying and selling price
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) To earn the rate of return that the select asset class provides

    The workbook states: the objective of a passive investor is to earn the rate of return that the select asset class provides. The passive investor does not decide on individual securities; the analysis is limited to the broader asset class, typically through an indexing strategy that buys all securities in an index.

    Option A is the objective of the active investor — earning above the broader asset class. Option C is wrong in direction: indexing usually means holding all index constituents, so the number of securities held is typically large. Option D describes a trader, not any kind of investor.

  3. 3.Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) refers to the minimum percentage of total deposits which commercial banks have to hold in:

    1. a)Cash reserves with the central bank
    2. b)Cash equivalents such as gold and Government of India securities
    3. c)Current accounts with other commercial banks
    4. d)Foreign currency assets
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) Cash equivalents such as gold and Government of India securities

    SLR is the minimum percentage of total deposits banks must hold in cash equivalents such as gold and Government of India securities — held by the bank itself.

    Option A is the definition of CRR — the Cash Reserve Ratio is the minimum percentage of total deposits held as cash reserves with the central bank. Both definitions begin with the identical phrase "minimum percentage of the total deposits", so the phrase cannot separate them. What separates them is the form of the asset (cash versus gold and G-secs) and where it is held (with the central bank versus with the bank itself).

    Options C and D are not part of either definition.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XV

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