Third-party reliance
Also written Reliance on third parties · Third-party KYC reliance · Reliance on a third party for client due diligence
Using another regulated firm's client due diligence instead of doing your own — permitted under Rule 9(2) of the PML Rules on six conditions, with the relying entity still ultimately responsible.
In plain language
The same investor is identified many times over in a lifetime — by a bank, a broker, a fund and an insurer. Doing all that work again from scratch is waste, and the rules accept as much.
So a reporting entity may rely on a third party for the job of identifying a client and verifying who that client is. It takes the other firm's due diligence and uses it.
The permission comes with six conditions, and the last of them is the one that matters most. The relying entity remains ultimately responsible. If the third party did the work badly, the failure belongs to the firm that leaned on it, not to the firm that did it.
That is why this is a favourite of the enforcement orders. Relying on somebody else feels like sharing the risk. In law it is not shared at all.
How it works
The permission (Chapter 3, Rule 9(2) of the PML Rules). For the purpose of clause (a) of Rule 9(1) — identifying clients and verifying their identity using reliable and independent sources — a reporting entity may rely on a third party, subject to six conditions:
| Clause | Condition |
|---|---|
| (a) | The reporting entity immediately obtains, from the third party or from the Central KYC Records Registry, the records or the information of the client due diligence the third party carried out |
| (b) | It takes adequate steps to satisfy itself that copies of identification data and other relevant documentation will be made available from the third party upon request without delay |
| (c) | It is satisfied that the third party is regulated, supervised or monitored for, and has measures in place for compliance with, client due diligence and record-keeping requirements in line with the Act |
| (d) | The third party is not based in a country or jurisdiction assessed as high risk |
| (e) | The reporting entity is ultimately responsible for client due diligence and for undertaking enhanced due diligence measures, as applicable |
| (f) | Where the third party is part of the same Financial Group, the Regulator may issue guidelines to consider any relaxation in conditions (a) to (d) |
Note what clause (f) does and does not do. It does not relax anything by itself. It gives the Regulator room to relax conditions (a) to (d) by guidelines — and it says nothing at all about condition (e). Ultimate responsibility is not relaxable.
Two words to read carefully. Immediately, in clause (a), is when the records must be obtained — not eventually. Without delay, in clause (b), is when the underlying documents must be producible later.
Where else it appears. Chapter VI of the IFSCA (AML, CFT and KYC) Guidelines, 2022 is titled Third Party Reliance — one of the Guidelines' 12 chapters. In the FATF Standards, Recommendation 17 is Reliance on third parties, grouped under the heading Reliance, Controls and Financial Groups together with Recommendation 18 on internal controls and foreign branches and subsidiaries.
A different rule with similar words. Rule 9(1F) says a reporting entity shall not transfer KYC records obtained from the Central KYC Records Registry to any third party unless authorised by the client, the Regulator or the Director. That is about handing records out. Rule 9(2) is about taking them in.
A worked example
The workbook supplies the enforcement case.
FIU-IND v. Paytm Payments Bank Ltd. Among the charges FIU-IND found substantiated was this one, in its own words: failure of the Bank to satisfy the requirements with respect to reliance on third-party KYC by relying on a non-compliant or unregulated entity, in violation of Section 12 of the PMLA read with Rule 9(2)(c) and Rule 9(2)(f).
Read that against the table. Clause (c) is the requirement that the third party be regulated, supervised or monitored — and the entity relied on was not. By order dated 15 March 2024, under Section 13 of the PMLA, the Director FIU-IND imposed a total penalty of Rs 5,49,00,000 on the bank for that charge and four others, including no internal mechanism to detect and report suspicious transactions on its Payout service and no suspicious transaction reports for 34 beneficiary accounts.
Now an IFSC illustration. Illustrative amounts. Sabarmati Global Fund Management (IFSC) onboards 40 investors introduced by a distributor.
| Distributor | Regulated? | Based in | Records supplied | Reliance permitted? |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Meridian Wealth Pte Ltd | Yes, by its home regulator | A jurisdiction not assessed as high risk | KYC files sent the same day | Yes — clauses (a) to (d) met |
| Coastal Introducers FZE | No licence of any kind | A jurisdiction not assessed as high risk | Files sent the same day | No — clause (c) fails, exactly the Paytm charge |
| Larimar Advisors Ltd | Yes, regulated | A jurisdiction assessed as high risk | Files sent the same day | No — clause (d) fails |
For the 22 investors introduced by Meridian, Sabarmati relies on Meridian's work. Eight months later one of those investors is rated high risk on a change of circumstances. Sabarmati, not Meridian, must perform the enhanced due diligence — clause (e) puts it there. And when a regulator asks for the passport copy of investor number 17, Sabarmati must produce it without delay from Meridian under clause (b), which is why the contract it signed says one business day rather than "reasonable endeavours".
Why NISM asks about it
Chapter 3 (The Prevention of Money-laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005) carries Rule 9(2) and its six conditions; Chapter 5 lists Chapter VI — Third Party Reliance among the 12 chapters of the IFSCA Guidelines; Chapter 7 (Discussion on PMLA related Cases) supplies the Paytm Payments Bank charge citing Rule 9(2)(c) and Rule 9(2)(f); and Chapter 8 lists Recommendation 17, Reliance on third parties.
Expect a which of the following is NOT a condition for relying on a third party question, and a direct question on who remains responsible. The answer to the second is always the relying reporting entity. The Paytm penalty of Rs 5,49,00,000 and the rule numbers cited in that order are recall material.
Common exam traps
- Responsibility never transfers. Clause (e) makes the relying entity ultimately responsible for client due diligence and for enhanced due diligence. The third party's failure is the relying entity's breach.
- The third party must be regulated, supervised or monitored. Relying on an unregulated introducer is the exact charge Paytm Payments Bank was penalised on.
- A high-risk jurisdiction rules the third party out, whatever the quality of its files.
- "Immediately" and "without delay" are two different obligations. Records come in immediately at the start; documents must be producible without delay afterwards.
- Clause (f) relaxes nothing on its own. It only permits the Regulator to issue guidelines considering relaxation of conditions (a) to (d) for a third party inside the same Financial Group — and condition (e) is not in that list.
- Reliance is permissive. The Rule says a reporting entity may rely on a third party. Nothing compels it, and nothing stops it doing the work itself.
- Do not confuse Rule 9(2) with Rule 9(1F). One lets you use another firm's records; the other forbids you handing Central KYC Records Registry records to a third party without authority.
- Reliance covers identification and verification, not the whole file. Rule 9(2) is written for clause (a) of Rule 9(1). Understanding the customer's business and finding the beneficial owner sit in clauses (b) and (c), and the relying entity owns them.
Check yourself
1.What does it mean when the FATF places a jurisdiction under increased monitoring?
- a)The country has committed to resolve swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies within agreed timeframes and is subject to increased monitoring — the "grey list"
- b)All jurisdictions are called upon to apply counter-measures against it
- c)The country is expelled from the FATF
- d)Its financial institutions are automatically sanctioned
Show the answer
Answer: (a) The country has committed to resolve swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies within agreed timeframes and is subject to increased monitoring — the "grey list"
When the FATF places a jurisdiction under increased monitoring, it means the country has committed to resolve swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies within agreed timeframes and is subject to increased monitoring. This list is often externally referred to as the "grey list".
Two elements — a commitment by the country, and agreed timeframes. Grey listing is cooperative rather than punitive.
Option B describes the black list, and overstates even that. For all countries identified as high-risk by FATF, the FATF calls on all members and urges all jurisdictions to apply enhanced due diligence, and, in the most serious cases, countries are called upon to apply counter-measures.
Enhanced due diligence generally; counter-measures only in the most serious cases.
Options C and D invent consequences. Listing does not expel a country or automatically sanction its institutions; it changes what other jurisdictions' firms must do.
How listing happens: if a country repeatedly fails to implement FATF Standards then it can be named a Jurisdiction under Increased Monitoring or a High Risk Jurisdiction. These are often externally referred to as "the grey and black lists".
And who decides: the FATF's decision-making body, the FATF Plenary, meets three times per year and holds countries to account if they do not comply with the Standards.
Assessments are shared: countries and jurisdictions are assessed with the help of nine FATF Associate Member organisations and other global partners, the IMF and World Bank.
What the listings mean in practice for a regulated entity. Third-party reliance requires that the third party is not based in a country or jurisdiction assessed as high risk; correspondent banking demands caution with jurisdictions which have strategic deficiencies; and enhanced due diligence must be applied to persons from countries for which this is called for by the FATF.
Where this is taught
Free preparation for NISM Series IFSCA-01Related terms
- Enhanced Due DiligenceThe additional customer due diligence a Regulated Entity must perform where ML/TF risk is high — including source of wealth, Senior Management approval and enhanced ongoing monitoring.
- FATF StandardsThe FATF Recommendations together with their Interpretive Notes and the applicable Glossary definitions — the international AML/CFT/PF standard that more than 200 jurisdictions have committed to implement.
- Financial GroupA parent company, or other legal person exercising control and coordinating functions, together with the branches and subsidiaries that are subject to AML/CFT policies and procedures at group level.
- KYC IdentifierThe unique number or code the Central KYC Records Registry assigns to a client after de-duplicating its KYC records — the key a reporting entity uses to fetch those records instead of asking for them again.
- Central KYC RegistryThe Government's central digital store of KYC records for the whole financial sector, operated by CERSAI, which de-duplicates records and issues each client a unique KYC Identifier.
- Reporting entityUnder Section 2(1)(wa) of the PMLA, a banking company, financial institution, intermediary or person carrying on a designated business or profession — the entity that must keep records and report to FIU-IND.
- FIU-INDIndia's central national agency for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information on suspect financial transactions, set up in November 2004 and reporting to the Economic Intelligence Council.