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Bond Equivalent Yield

Also written BEY · Bond Equivalent Yield (BEY) · Money market yield · Bond equivalent yield of a T-bill

The annualised simple-interest return on a money market instrument, computed on price and a 365-day year, so instruments of different maturities can be compared on one basis.

In plain language

Money market instruments — treasury bills, commercial paper, certificates of deposit — have a single cash flow and mature inside a year. A 34-day bill and a 182-day bill cannot be compared by their raw discounts, because the holding periods differ.

Bond equivalent yield puts them on a common basis. It takes the gain over the purchase price, and scales it up to a full year using a 365-day year — the Actual/365 convention prevalent in the Indian money market.

It is a simple annualisation. Nothing is compounded, because there is nothing to reinvest before maturity.

How it works

Treasury bills are issued at a discount to the face value of Rs 100 and redeemed at par. The investor's entire return is the difference between what he paid and the Rs 100 he collects.

BEY divides that gain by the price — the money actually at risk — and then annualises by 365 over the days to maturity.

The companion measure, discount yield, answers a deliberately different question: it divides the same gain by the face value and annualises on a 360-day year with 30-day months. Because the divisor is larger (100 rather than the discounted price) and the year is shorter, discount yield always comes out below BEY on the same bill.

The distinction matters commercially, not just academically: 91-day T-bill futures are quoted as 100 minus the futures discount yield, so it is discount yield, not BEY, that drives the contract.

The formula

             Face value − Price      365
BEY   =    ──────────────────  ×  ───────────────  × 100
                   Price            Days to maturity

Against the money market's other annualisation:

Discount yield = (Face value − Price) × 360 ÷ (Face value × Days to maturity)

And against the compounded measure, which is a different thing again:

Effective annual yield = (1 + r/m)^m − 1

A worked example

The workbook's bill. A T-bill maturing on 25 November 2021 trades at Rs 99.6898 with a value date of 22 October 2021 — 34 days to maturity.

BEY = (100 − 99.6898) ÷ 99.6898 × 365 ÷ 34 × 100
    = 0.0031117 × 10.7353 × 100
    = 3.34%

In rupees. Buy Rs 1 crore of face value at that price:

Amount paidRs 99,68,980
Received at maturity, 34 days laterRs 1,00,00,000
GainRs 31,020
Annualised: 31,020 ÷ 99,68,980 × 365/343.34%

The same bill on a discount yield basis:

Discount yield = (100 − 99.6898) × 360 ÷ (100 × 34)
               = 0.3102 × 360 ÷ 3,400
               = 3.28%

Six basis points apart on the same piece of paper, on the same day — one dividing by Rs 99.6898 over 365 days, the other by Rs 100 over 360 days. A 91-day T-bill futures contract on this bill would be quoted at 100 − 3.28 = 96.72, not at 96.66.

The same method gives the yield on commercial paper and certificates of deposit.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 1, section 1.10.2.3 (Yield for Money Market), introduces BEY with exactly the T-bill above, and section 1.10.2.4 follows with effective yield. Discount yield sits between them, flagged as the measure that matters for trading 91-day T-bill futures — which is where Chapter 3 picks it up.

The question forms are: compute BEY from a price and a settlement date; identify which yield measure uses 360 days; and recognise that multiplying a semi-annual yield by two understates the effective annual yield.

Common exam traps

  • BEY divides by price; discount yield divides by face value. This single difference produces two different answers on every bill, and the question usually supplies both figures to see which you pick up.
  • BEY uses 365 days (Actual/365); discount yield uses 360 with 30-day months. Neither uses 366, and neither compounds.
  • BEY is not the effective yield. Effective yield is (1 + r/m)^m − 1 — a 4.20% annual coupon paid monthly is worth 4.28% effective. BEY has no compounding in it at all.
  • Doubling a semi-annual yield underestimates the effective annual yield. The workbook flags this specifically: use (1 + semi-annual rate)² − 1.
  • The 91-day T-bill futures quote runs off discount yield, not BEY — and the contract value formula 2,000 × (100 − 0.25y) uses a quarter of a year, not 91 ÷ 365.
  • Days to maturity is counted from the value date, not the trade date. In the example the 34 days run from 22 October, the settlement date.

Check yourself

  1. 1.A scheduled commercial bank borrows funds from another bank on an uncollateralised basis for 10 days, and reports the deal on NDS-CALL. Which money market segment is this?

    1. a)Call money
    2. b)Notice money
    3. c)Term money
    4. d)Triparty repo (TREPS)
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) Notice money

    The workbook splits uncollateralised interbank borrowing by tenor. All three segments are dealt or reported on RBI's NDS-CALL:

    • Call money: "predominantly overnight". The tenor may be extended only to cover weekends and holidays.
    • Notice money: "uncollateralized lending and borrowing of funds for a period beyond overnight and up to 14 days."
    • Term money: "for a period between 15 days and 1 year."

    A 10-day unsecured interbank loan is beyond overnight and within 14 days. So it is notice money.

    Why the others are wrong:

    • Call money is overnight, not 10 days.
    • Term money starts at 15 days.
    • TREPS is a collateralised borrowing against government securities, with CCIL as central counterparty and a triparty agent. This loan is uncollateralised.
  2. 2.Under the workbook's maturity-based classification of bonds, how would a bond maturing in 9 years be described?

    1. a)Medium-term (intermediate) debt, the segment where the bulk of debt issuance generally takes place
    2. b)Short-term debt, since it matures in less than 10 years
    3. c)Long-term debt, like most Government of India bonds
    4. d)Ultra-short-term debt, since it has a single maturity date
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) Medium-term (intermediate) debt, the segment where the bulk of debt issuance generally takes place

    The workbook's maturity buckets are:

    • Ultra-short-term (money market): up to one year (CPs, CDs, T-Bills, CMBs)
    • Short-term: "maturity spanning from 1 to 5 years"
    • Medium-term: "bonds maturing in 5 to 12 years. These are also referred to as intermediate bonds. Generally, the bulk of debt issuances take place in this segment."
    • Long-term: "maturity beyond 12 years. Generally, Government of India bonds issued are of long-term maturity."

    A 9-year bond falls in the 5–12 year medium-term band.

    Why the others are wrong:

    • Short-term stops at 5 years.
    • Long-term starts beyond 12 years. Most GOI issuance is long-term, but that does not make a 9-year bond long-term.
    • Ultra-short-term is money market paper of up to one year.

    The workbook also warns that "there is no specific guideline for determining short term, medium term and long term debt." Mutual funds classify debt funds by duration rather than maturity.

  3. 3.A participant buys 10 lots of cash settled single bond GOI futures at Rs 99. What is the contract value?

    1. a)Rs 19,80,000
    2. b)Rs 20,00,000
    3. c)Rs 19,99,000
    4. d)Rs 1,98,000
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) Rs 19,80,000

    One lot equals notional bonds of face value INR 2 lakh, i.e. 2,000 bonds, and contract value = trade price × 2000 per lot.

    $$\text{Contract Value} = 10 \times 2000 \times 99 = \mathbf{Rs\ 19{,}80{,}000}$$

    Option (b), Rs 20,00,000, is the face value (10 lots × Rs 2 lakh) — the answer you get if you forget that the bond is trading below par at Rs 99. The distinction matters beyond the exam: contract value is what determines the margin amount, transaction charges and regulatory charges.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series IV

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