Deemed residual maturity
Also written Deemed maturity of AT1 bonds
The maturity SEBI tells mutual funds to assume when valuing perpetual AT1 and AT2 bank bonds and computing their duration. For AT1 bonds it is 100 years from issuance from April 1, 2023.
In plain language
Some bank bonds have no maturity date at all. Additional Tier 1 (AT1) bonds are perpetual: the bank may call them back on a call date, but it does not have to, and they can absorb losses before equity in some situations.
A fund still has to value them and state the portfolio's duration. So SEBI prescribed a deemed residual maturity: a maturity the fund must pretend the bond has for valuation and Macaulay duration.
To avoid a sudden price shock when the rule was introduced, the deemed maturity for AT1 bonds was stretched in steps, from 10 years to 100 years.
How it works
The glide path (Chapter 7):
| Period | AT1 bonds | AT2 bonds |
|---|---|---|
| Till March 31, 2022 | 10 years | 10 years or contractual maturity, whichever is earlier |
| April 1, 2022 to September 30, 2022 | 20 years | Contractual maturity |
| October 1, 2022 to March 31, 2023 | 30 years | Contractual maturity |
| April 1, 2023 onwards | 100 years from the date of issuance | Contractual maturity |
Macaulay duration of these bonds is calculated on the deemed residual maturity in the table.
If the call is not exercised on the call date, valuation and Macaulay duration use 100 years from issue for AT1 and contractual maturity for AT2. If non-exercise reflects the issuer's financial stress or bad news, that must be reflected in the valuation.
Valuation basis: SEBI has decided that AT1 bonds are valued by mutual funds on a Yield to Call basis.
Related limits on these instruments:
- No mutual fund may own more than 10% of such bonds issued by a single issuer.
- A scheme may not invest more than 10% of its assets in such instruments, and not more than 5% of its assets in such instruments of a single issuer (the workbook prints "single investor"; the context is the issuer).
- Holdings already above the limits are grandfathered, with no further investment.
- Close-ended debt schemes can invest only in instruments maturing before the scheme ends, so they cannot hold perpetual bonds deemed to mature 100 years after issue.
A worked example
The bond and scheme below are illustrative; the rules are the workbook's.
A bank issued an AT1 bond on 15 July 2020, with its first call date on 15 July 2025.
| Valuation date | Deemed residual maturity used | Deemed maturity date |
|---|---|---|
| 1 March 2022 | 10 years | about March 2032 |
| 1 August 2022 | 20 years | about August 2042 |
| 1 January 2023 | 30 years | about January 2053 |
| 1 May 2023 | 100 years from issuance | 15 July 2120 |
Each step lengthened the deemed maturity, and with it the bond's Macaulay duration, so the rule was phased in rather than applied overnight.
Limits check for an open-ended debt scheme with net assets of Rs 2,000 crore:
Maximum in all such bonds = 10% × 2,000 = Rs 200 crore
Maximum in one issuer's such bonds = 5% × 2,000 = Rs 100 crore
If the bank's total AT1 issue is Rs 1,500 crore, the whole mutual fund (all its schemes together) may own at most 10% × 1,500 = Rs 150 crore of it.
A 3-year close-ended FMP cannot hold this bond at all: it can only invest in instruments maturing before the scheme ends.
Why NISM asks about it
Chapter 7 (Net Asset Value, Total Expense Ratio and Pricing of Units) covers the valuation of perpetual bonds: the exposure limits, the deemed residual maturity table, the call-not-exercised rule and Yield to Call valuation. Expect a question on the deemed maturity of AT1 bonds from April 1, 2023 (100 years from issuance), on AT2 (contractual maturity), and on the 10% / 10% / 5% limits.
Common exam traps
- 100 years is counted from the date of issuance, not from the valuation date.
- AT2 bonds use contractual maturity after March 31, 2022; only AT1 moved to 20, 30 and 100 years.
- Till March 31, 2022, AT2 was 10 years or contractual maturity, whichever is earlier.
- Three different 10% and 5% limits: 10% of one issuer's such bonds (fund level), 10% of scheme assets (all such bonds), 5% of scheme assets (one issuer).
- Valuation of AT1 is on Yield to Call, while Macaulay duration uses the deemed residual maturity.
- Close-ended debt schemes cannot hold perpetual bonds.
Check yourself
1.Which statement about mutual fund investment in AT-1 and AT-2 bonds is correct?
- a)A scheme may invest up to 25% of its assets in such instruments, valued on a yield to maturity basis
- b)No mutual fund shall own more than 10% of such bonds of a single issuer, no scheme may invest more than 10% of its assets in them or more than 5% in those of a single issuer, and AT-1 bonds are valued on a Yield to Call basis
- c)Close-ended debt schemes may freely invest in perpetual bonds because of their attractive yields
- d)Existing holdings above the limits must be sold down within thirty days
Show the answer
Answer: (b) No mutual fund shall own more than 10% of such bonds of a single issuer, no scheme may invest more than 10% of its assets in them or more than 5% in those of a single issuer, and AT-1 bonds are valued on a Yield to Call basis
"No mutual fund shall own more than 10% of such types of bonds issued by a SINGLE ISSUER. In addition, a mutual fund SCHEME shall not invest MORE THAN 10% OF ITS ASSETS into such instruments. The scheme should also not invest MORE THAN 5% OF ITS ASSETS in such instruments of a single" issuer — and these sit "within the overall limits of an issuer that are specified in the PRUDENTIAL GUIDELINES." On valuation: "SEBI has decided that the valuation of AT-1 Bonds by Mutual Funds shall be done on YIELD TO CALL basis." Option (d) is wrong because "the investments... already in excess of this limit would be GRANDFATHERED and there would NOT be any FURTHER INVESTMENT permitted." Option (c) is expressly barred: "CLOSE ENDED DEBT SCHEMES CAN INVEST ONLY IN INSTRUMENTS THAT MATURE BEFORE THE END DATE of the scheme. Due to this reason, these types of funds CANNOT INVEST IN PERPETUAL BONDS" — because from 1 April 2023 the deemed residual maturity of an AT-1 bond is 100 years from the date of issuance.
Where this is taught
Free preparation for NISM Series V-DRelated terms
- Macaulay durationThe weighted average time, in years, to receive a bond's cash flows, each weighted by the present value of that cash flow — the bond's effective payback period.
- Credit eventAn adverse credit development, such as a rating downgrade by a SEBI-registered CRA or an actual default, that permits a debt fund to create a segregated portfolio. In a CDS it triggers the protection payment.
- Fair valuation principlesSEBI's ten principles requiring a mutual fund to value its holdings at realisable value, in good faith, under Board-approved and disclosed policies, so every investor entering or leaving gets a fair price.
- Yield to CallThe annualised return on a callable bond if the issuer redeems it at the first call date for the call price — YTM with the call price and call date substituted.