EBIT
Also written Earnings Before Interest and Taxes · Operating profit (EBIT) · Earnings before interest and tax · Operating profit
Earnings before interest and taxes — the workbook's operating profit, struck one step below EBITDA after depreciation and amortisation, and the profit that has to cover the interest bill.
In plain language
A profit and loss account is a waterfall. Revenue at the top, and each expense takes a cut on the way down.
EBITDA is the first stop. Take depreciation and amortisation out of it and you reach the next stop, which is EBIT.
EBIT is the profit the business earns before 2 things: the interest it owes its lenders, and the tax it owes the government. The workbook simply calls it operating profit.
It matters because of what comes next. Interest is the very next line. So EBIT is the money actually available to pay the lenders — and if it does not cover them, the company has a problem no amount of revenue growth hides.
How it works
Where it sits. Section 8.4.2 places EBIT as "the next level of profit metric in the waterfall from revenue to profits after taxes," directly below EBITDA. It is "referred to operating profit." Below EBIT come finance costs, then tax, then "Net Profit or EAT or PAT, which is the final profit available to the shareholders to be distributed as dividend or to reinvest in the business."
The workbook's own waterfall. Bharti Airtel, FY 2019, in Rs million:
| Line | FY 2019 | FY 2018 |
|---|---|---|
| EBITDA | 2,61,101 | 3,03,279 |
| Depreciation and amortisation | (2,13,475) | (1,92,431) |
| EBIT | 47,626 | 1,10,848 |
| Finance costs | (1,10,134) | (93,255) |
One year, 2 numbers, and the gap between them is the whole point of the metric: D&A of Rs 2,13,475 million consumed 82% of EBITDA, and what survived did not cover the Rs 1,10,134 million interest bill.
What it is used for. The workbook names 3 jobs. EBIT is "a useful metric to measure the ability of the firm to meet the annual interest or financial expenses." It is a significant input for the interest coverage ratio, computed as EBIT ÷ interest expense. And it feeds free cash flow to the firm for valuation.
Two further uses appear later in chapter 8. ROCE is EBIT ÷ capital employed. And for valuation, EBIT × (1 − tax rate) = NOPAT.
The margin. Section 8.11.1 (Profitability Ratios) notes that EBIT margin is "popularly known as Operating Profit Margins."
The formula
EBIT = EBITDA − Depreciation − Amortisation
EBIT margin = EBIT ÷ Revenue × 100
Interest coverage = EBIT ÷ Interest expense
ROCE = EBIT ÷ Capital employed × 100
NOPAT = EBIT × (1 − tax rate)
A worked example
The workbook works this example itself, in section 8.10, to show why a number means nothing on its own. Bharti Airtel, FY 2019:
EBIT (operating profit) = Rs 47.62 billion
Revenue = Rs 807.8 billion
Interest expense = over Rs 110 billion
Rs 47.62 billion "looks fairly large." Then set it against revenue:
EBIT margin = 47.62 ÷ 807.8 = 5.9%
So for every Rs 100 of service sold, less than Rs 6 survived to the operating profit line. And against interest:
Interest coverage = 47.62 ÷ 110 = 0.43 times
The workbook's conclusion is blunt: "their profit was way too inadequate to even service the interest expense."
Now compare with the prior year, where EBIT was Rs 1,10,848 million against finance costs of Rs 93,255 million — coverage of 1.19 times. Revenue barely moved. What moved was depreciation and amortisation, up from Rs 1,92,431 million to Rs 2,13,475 million, and EBITDA, down from Rs 3,03,279 million to Rs 2,61,101 million. EBIT absorbed both, and it fell 57% in a single year.
Why NISM asks about it
Section 8.4.2 (Key metrics from profit and loss account) defines EBIT; 8.9 uses EBIT margin; 8.11 builds the interest coverage ratio and ROCE on it; and chapter 10 uses NOPAT and free cash flow to the firm, both derived from it. Section 8.10 uses the Airtel EBIT figure as its opening illustration of why ratio analysis exists at all.
Expect a computation: given a P&L, work down from EBITDA to EBIT, or work EBIT into interest coverage. Expect a definitional question on what EBIT is struck before — interest and tax, but after depreciation and amortisation. And expect NOPAT, since EBIT × (1 − tax rate) is the one formula the workbook attaches to EBIT for valuation purposes.
Common exam traps
- EBIT is after depreciation and amortisation; EBITDA is before. That single difference is the most examined point here, and in the Airtel year it was worth Rs 2,13,475 million.
- EBIT is before interest, so it is the right measure for testing debt service — and the wrong measure for what shareholders actually earned. PAT is the shareholders' number.
- Operating profit and EBIT are the same thing in this workbook. It says so directly, and the margin built on it is called the operating profit margin.
- NOPAT is EBIT after notional tax, not after interest. EBIT × (1 − tax rate) deliberately keeps the funding decision out of the figure.
- A large EBIT can still be a failing EBIT. The workbook's Kingfisher Airlines case in 8.6 is exactly this: EBIT much lower than interest obligations for several years, so the airline "was borrowing money to pay interest."
- Do not confuse EBIT margin with gross margin. The workbook notes Indian companies generally do not disclose direct costs separately, so gross profit often cannot be computed at all.
Check yourself
1.For 2XX9 a company reports (₹ lakh): profit before tax 2,929.6; depreciation and amortisation 218.6; finance cost 195.2. Which is closest to its operating profit?
- a)₹2,929.6 lakh
- b)₹3,124.8 lakh
- c)₹3,343.4 lakh
- d)₹3,945.5 lakh
Show the answer
Answer: (b) ₹3,124.8 lakh
The workbook states that EBIT is referred to as operating profit. To get from PBT back up to EBIT you add back the finance cost, which has already been deducted:
EBIT = 2,929.6 + 195.2 = ₹3,124.8 lakh
Why the others are there. ₹2,929.6 lakh is PBT itself — the answer for anyone who does not adjust at all. ₹3,343.4 lakh is EBITDA (2,929.6 + 195.2 + 218.6), and it is the single most tempting wrong answer because EBITDA feels like the operations number. It is one level above operating profit. ₹3,945.5 lakh is an arithmetic decoy.
Hold the waterfall in order: EBITDA → less D&A → EBIT (operating profit) → less finance cost → PBT → less tax → PAT.
2.Why can the P/E, EV/EBITDA and EV/EBIT multiples not be applied to certain companies?
- a)Because they only work for listed companies
- b)Because the multiple cannot be applied where the underlying profit metric is negative
- c)Because SEBI prohibits their use in published research
- d)Because they require at least ten years of financial history
Show the answer
Answer: (b) Because the multiple cannot be applied where the underlying profit metric is negative
These multiples divide a price or enterprise value by a profit metric — earnings, EBITDA or EBIT. They cannot be applied if the underlying profit metric is negative, because a negative denominator produces a figure that is not merely wrong but meaningless.
A related problem the workbook flags: where earnings are much lower than their long-term potential — a company just past a loss-making phase, or in a cyclical trough — the multiples would be too high to be meaningful even when technically positive.
The workbook's own answer for loss-makers is EV/Sales: it "is likely to be a more meaningful metric as sales can never be negative" (p209). Price to Book Value is the other multiple that survives a loss year. It focuses on how much an investor needs to invest to gain a claim on the assets, and the book value stays positive even when the current year's profit does not.
One further caution from the workbook: compare against the industry average and the median, since a single extreme comparable can distort the mean.
3.According to Warren Buffett as quoted in the workbook, what are the only two sources of value in a business?
- a)Growth and market share
- b)Earnings and assets
- c)Brand and management
- d)Revenue and market capitalisation
Show the answer
Answer: (b) Earnings and assets
"There are only two sources of value in a business — Earnings and Assets."
The logic runs through the whole chapter. Every asset generates periodic earnings and a final inflow on sale: a bond gives coupons and redemption, equity gives dividends and sale proceeds, real estate gives rent and an appreciated capital value.
Businesses are the same: they generate cash as earnings, with the potential to realise cash from the sale of tangible and intangible assets if the earnings die down and owners liquidate.
The other options name things that produce earnings or assets — brand, management, market share, revenue — but they are drivers, not sources of value in this framework. And the chapter's structure follows the split exactly: earnings-based valuation matrices (P/E, PEG, EV/EBITDA, dividend yield) and asset-based valuation matrices (P/B, EV to capital employed, NAV).
Where this is taught
Free preparation for NISM Series XVRelated terms
- Adjusted profit after taxReported profit after tax with one-off, non-recurring items and their tax effect stripped out, so one year can be compared fairly with another.
- EBITDAProfit from running the business, measured before interest, tax, depreciation and amortisation — so before how the company is funded and how it accounts for its assets.
- Free Cash Flow to FirmThe cash a business generates before any payment to any provider of capital — discounted at WACC it gives the value of the whole firm, from which debt and other claims are then subtracted.
- Interest coverage ratioEBIT divided by interest expense — how many times operating profit covers the interest bill. Below 1, the business is not earning enough to pay its interest.
- Return on Capital EmployedOperating profit as a percentage of all the capital in the business, equity and debt together — the return the enterprise earns before any question of how it was funded or taxed.
- WACCThe blended after-tax rate a company pays on all its capital, equity and debt weighted by how much of each it uses — and therefore the discount rate for free cash flow to the firm.