NISM Professor

M² measure

Also written M2 measure · M-squared · M square

A portfolio's return re-scaled to the market's level of risk, so it can be compared with the market return directly, in percentage points.

In plain language

The Sharpe ratio ranks portfolios correctly, but "0.69 against 0.73" means little to a client. M² turns the same idea into a return.

It asks: if this portfolio had been run at exactly the market's level of risk, what would it have returned? You get there by mixing the portfolio with the risk-free asset (to reduce risk) or borrowing (to increase it) until its standard deviation equals the market's.

Once the risks are equal, the returns can be compared head-on. If the risk-adjusted return is above the market's, the portfolio outperformed; below it, there is a shortfall.

The measure was derived by Franco Modigliani and his granddaughter (1997), hence M-squared.

How it works

The workbook's example: portfolio return 35%, market return 28%, Treasury bill rate 6%, portfolio standard deviation 42%, market standard deviation 30%.

Intuitive approach

  1. Excess return of the portfolio: 35 − 6 = 29%.
  2. Scale it to the market's risk: 29 × (30 ÷ 42) = 20.71%.
  3. Add back the risk-free rate: 20.71 + 6 = 26.71%.
  4. Compare with the market's 28%: 26.71 − 28 = −1.29% — a shortfall.

Capital Market Line approach

  • Weight in the portfolio = 30 ÷ 42 = 0.714; weight in T-bills = 0.286.
  • M² = 0.714 × 35% + 0.286 × 6% = 26.7%, a shortfall of about 1.3%.

The portfolio earned 7 percentage points more than the market in raw terms, and still underperformed once its extra risk is accounted for.

The formula

M² = (σ_benchmark ÷ σ_portfolio) × (Rp − Rf) + Rf

   = Sharpe ratio of portfolio × σ_benchmark + Rf

Outperformance (or shortfall) = M² − R_benchmark

A worked example

The workbook's Chapter 20 caselet, applied to an illustrative ₹1 crore PMS account. The portfolio returned 25% with volatility 18%. The benchmark returned 22% with volatility 15%. The risk-free rate is 8%.

M² = (15 ÷ 18) × (25 − 8) + 8
   = 0.8333 × 17 + 8
   = 14.167 + 8
   = 22.167%

Outperformance = 22.167% − 22% = +0.167%.

Raw resultRisk-adjusted
Portfolio₹25.00 lakh₹22.17 lakh
Benchmark₹22.00 lakh₹22.00 lakh
Edge₹3.00 lakh≈ ₹16,700

The client sees a ₹3 lakh beat. After adjusting for the extra volatility, the manager's genuine edge is worth about ₹16,700 — positive, but a sixth of a percentage point, not three.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 20 (Performance Measurement and Evaluation of Portfolio Managers), section 20.4.6, derives M² both intuitively and through the Capital Market Line, and a Chapter 20 caselet asks whether the portfolio "actually beat the market adjusting its risk to that of the market". Expect a computation and a Yes/No on outperformance, and possibly a question matching M² to its description ("adjusts portfolio risk to match benchmark risk").

Common exam traps

  • Add the risk-free rate back. The caselet lists a "Formula One" without Rf; comparing that number with the market return is wrong. M² comparable to the market return must include Rf.
  • The ratio is benchmark risk ÷ portfolio risk, not the other way round. A riskier portfolio is scaled down.
  • M² and the Sharpe ratio always rank portfolios the same way — M² is the Sharpe ratio expressed as a return. Caselet 2 in the same chapter confirms it: Sharpe 0.944 against 0.933, the same verdict as M².
  • Rounding: the two approaches give 26.71% and 26.7%, a shortfall of 1.29% and 1.3%. Both are the workbook's figures.
  • M² uses total risk (standard deviation), like Sharpe — not beta, which is Treynor's and Jensen's measure of risk.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XXI-B

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