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Risk-free Asset

An asset whose return is certain: zero standard deviation, zero correlation with every risky asset, earning the risk-free rate and plotting on the vertical axis of a risk-return graph.

In plain language

A risky asset is one whose future returns are uncertain. A risk-free asset is one whose returns are certain.

Because the return is certain, it does not vary, and everything else follows from that. Its standard deviation is zero. It cannot move together with anything, so its covariance and correlation with every risky asset are zero. On a graph with risk along the bottom, it sits right on the vertical axis.

The workbook's practical example is government T-bills: investors can always lend at the nominal risk-free rate by buying them.

The risk-free asset is the ingredient that turns Modern Portfolio Theory into Capital Market Theory. Once investors can mix a risky portfolio with something certain, the shape of every good choice changes from a curve to a straight line.

How it works

Box 3.2 — characteristics of a risk-free asset:

  • returns yield zero standard deviation;
  • zero correlation with all other risky assets;
  • provides the risk-free rate of return (rf);
  • lies on the vertical axis of a portfolio graph, as it has no risk.

Mixing it with a risky asset. Expected return is the ordinary weighted average. Risk is where the zero does its work: because the risk-free asset's variance is zero and its covariance with the risky asset is zero, the Markowitz formula collapses to one term.

The workbook's numbers: risk-free rate 5%, risky asset expected return 12% and standard deviation 10%, with 70% in the risk-free asset:

E(Rport) = (70% × 5%) + (30% × 12%) = 7.10%
σ²port  = (1 − 70%)² × (10%)² = 0.0009
σport   = 30% × 10% = 3%

Table 3.5 runs all eleven combinations from 0% to 100% risky. Return climbs by 0.70 points and risk by 1 point for every 10% moved into the risky asset — risk rises in linear proportion. That straight line is what becomes the Capital Market Line.

One of the capital market theory assumptions is that investors can borrow or lend any amount at the risk-free rate. The workbook concedes that lending at it is always possible but borrowing is not; assuming a higher borrowing rate does not change the general results.

The formula

E(Rport) = W(RF) × RFR + (1 − W(RF)) × E(Ri)

σ(port)  = (1 − W(RF)) × σi

where W(RF) is the proportion of wealth in the risk-free asset.

A worked example

An investor has Rs 1 crore and uses the workbook's figures: T-bills at 5%, a risky equity portfolio expected to return 12% with a standard deviation of 10%.

In T-billsIn risky portfolioExpected returnExpected gainRisk
Rs 1 crore—5.0%Rs 5 lakh0%
Rs 70 lakhRs 30 lakh7.1%Rs 7.1 lakh3%
Rs 50 lakhRs 50 lakh8.5%Rs 8.5 lakh5%
—Rs 1 crore12.0%Rs 12 lakh10%

Check the 70:30 row:

(0.70 × 5%) + (0.30 × 12%) = 3.5% + 3.6% = 7.1%  → Rs 7.1 lakh
Risk = 0.30 × 10% = 3%

Each extra Rs 10 lakh moved into the risky portfolio adds Rs 70,000 of expected gain and one percentage point of risk. There is no diversification bonus and no penalty — the relationship is a straight line, because the T-bill contributes nothing to risk and does not co-move with the equities.

That is why the investor can dial risk precisely: a 3% risk budget means 30% risky and 70% T-bills, whatever the risky portfolio is.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 3, section 3.12 and Box 3.2, set out the four characteristics and the 70:30 worked example; Table 3.5 gives all eleven combinations; section 3.11 carries the borrow-and-lend assumption. Sample question 5 asks for the correlation between the market portfolio and a risk-free asset — zero. Chapter 1 builds the risk-free rate itself from the real rate and inflation.

Common exam traps

  • Correlation with any risky asset is zero, not −1. The risk-free asset does not hedge; it simply does not move.
  • Portfolio risk is linear in the weight of the risky asset when combined with a risk-free asset: 30% risky means 30% of its risk.
  • Lending at the risk-free rate is realistic; borrowing at it is not. The workbook says so, and says the general results survive a higher borrowing rate.
  • Zero standard deviation does not mean zero return. It earns rf.
  • It sits on the vertical (return) axis, not the horizontal one.

Check yourself

  1. 1.The correlation coefficient between the return on the market portfolio and the return on a risk-free asset is:

    1. a)+1
    2. b)-1
    3. c)Between 0 and +1
    4. d)Zero
    Show the answer

    Answer: (d) Zero

    Zero. Since the return of a risk-free asset is CERTAIN, its STANDARD DEVIATION IS ZERO. Also, the COVARIANCE between the return of the risk-free asset and the risky asset IS ZERO TOO.

    Box 3.2 lists four characteristics of a risk-free asset:

    • An asset where its returns yield ZERO STANDARD DEVIATION
    • ZERO CORRELATION with all other risky assets
    • Provides the RISK-FREE RATE OF RETURN
    • Will lie on the VERTICAL AXIS of a portfolio graph, as it has no risk

    The intuition is simple: correlation measures how two things move together. A risk-free asset does not move at all - its return is certain - so it cannot move with anything. There is nothing to correlate.

    And this fact has a large consequence. When a risk-free asset is combined with a risky portfolio, every term in the Markowitz risk formula involving the risk-free asset vanishes, leaving portfolio risk as simply the weight in the risky asset multiplied by the risk of the risky asset. Because that relationship is linear, such portfolios plot on a straight line - which is what makes the Capital Market Line straight, where Markowitz's frontier was curved.

  2. 2.The market portfolio returns 20 per cent and the risk-free rate is 5 per cent. An investor borrows an amount equal to 50 per cent of her wealth at the risk-free rate and invests 150 per cent of her wealth in the market portfolio. Her portfolio return is:

    1. a)20.0 per cent
    2. b)27.5 per cent
    3. c)32.5 per cent
    4. d)12.5 per cent
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) 27.5 per cent

    (1.5 x 20%) - (0.5 x 5%) = 30% - 2.5% = 27.5 per cent

    Note the MINUS sign, and the workbook's explanation for it: the debt component is SUBTRACTED from the return on the risky portfolio, because for the investor this represents REPAYMENT OR PAYMENT and NOT RECEIPT. Option 3 makes exactly this error by adding instead.

    How the gain arises. Borrowing at the risk-free rate and investing in the market portfolio generates the return on the market portfolio on EVERY SINGLE UNIT of investment, INCLUDING ON THE BORROWED PORTION. However, the investor pays only the RATE OF THE RISK-FREE ASSET on the borrowing, and therefore SAVES an amount of (Return on Market Portfolio LESS Return on Risk Free Asset) - here 15 percentage points on the borrowed half, or 7.5 points of extra return.

    Where it sits on the line: for all combinations of BORROWING at the risk-free rate and investing in the market portfolio, the returns lie TO THE RIGHT of point M on the CML. Lending combinations lie to the left, and 100 per cent in the market portfolio at 20 per cent is the maximum achievable without borrowing.

    The practical caveat the workbook concedes: it is NOT POSSIBLE TO BORROW at the risk-free rate - a real investor's borrowing rate is higher - however, assuming a higher borrowing rate does not change the general results.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XXI-B

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