NISM Professor

Modified Duration

Also written MD

Macaulay's duration divided by (1 + yield) — the percentage by which a bond's price moves for a one percentage point change in interest rates, and so the standard measure of interest rate risk.

In plain language

Every bond falls in price when interest rates rise. The question an analyst actually needs answered is by how much, and modified duration is the number that answers it.

Start with Macaulay's duration, which measures the weighted average time by which an investor gets the invested money back, using the present values of the bond's cash flows as the weights. Divide that by one plus the yield and the unit changes from years into sensitivity: a modified duration of 2.58 means a one percentage point rise in yields costs roughly 2.58% of the price.

How it works

Three features of a bond drive its duration, and the workbook states all three:

  • Longer time to maturity → higher duration → higher interest rate risk.
  • Lower coupon → higher duration. A small coupon means most of the money arrives at redemption, far away.
  • Lower yield → higher duration. A low discount rate pushes weight onto the distant cash flows.

Duration is also not a fixed property of the bond. As a bond approaches maturity its duration shrinks and it becomes less rate-sensitive, which is why a fund manager who wants less risk shortens the portfolio rather than selling everything.

The formula

                    Σ [ CFt ÷ (1+y)^t × t ]
Macaulay Duration = ───────────────────────
                             CMP

Modified Duration = Macaulay Duration ÷ (1 + y)

Approximate price change = − Modified Duration × change in yield

CFt is the cash flow in year t, y the yield to maturity, and CMP the current market price.

A worked example

A 3-year bond, face value Rs 1,000, coupon 8% paid annually, yielding 8% — so it trades at par, Rs 1,000.

YearCash flowPV at 8%PV × t
18074.0774.07
28068.59137.17
31,080857.342,572.02
1,000.002,783.26
Macaulay Duration = 2,783.26 ÷ 1,000 = 2.78 years
Modified Duration = 2.78 ÷ 1.08     = 2.58

Now yields rise 100 basis points, to 9%. The estimate says the price falls 2.58%, to Rs 974.23. Recompute the bond exactly at 9% and it is Rs 974.68 — the approximation is off by 45 paise, and the gap widens as the rate move gets larger.

Scale it up. A debt fund holding Rs 500 crore of this bond loses 2.58%, or Rs 12.9 crore, on that one percentage point. Had it held a 10-year bond with a modified duration of 6.7 instead, the same move would have cost Rs 33.5 crore — the same rupees, the same rate move, two and a half times the damage.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 3 (Terminology in Equity and Debt Markets, section 3.2.11) introduces duration as part of debt market terminology, and Chapter 12 lists interest rate risk among the systematic risks. Expect the formula relationship — modified equals Macaulay divided by (1 + y) — and the three directional statements: higher maturity, lower coupon and lower yield each raise duration and therefore interest rate risk.

Common exam traps

  • Divide by (1 + y), not by (1 + y)^t. The exponent belongs in the discounting inside Macaulay's duration, not in the conversion.
  • Duration is usually less than the term to maturity, because coupons return money early. Only a zero-coupon bond has a Macaulay duration equal to its maturity.
  • It is an approximation, and a one-sided one. For a large rate move it overstates the loss on a rise and understates the gain on a fall.
  • Duration is not static. It falls as the bond ages and it changes with the yield, so a stated duration belongs to a date.
  • Higher duration is not "riskier" in every sense — it is specifically more sensitive to interest rates. It says nothing about whether the issuer will pay.
  • Do not read modified duration as the bond's payback period. Macaulay's duration is measured in years; modified duration is a percentage sensitivity that merely inherits the same number.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XV

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