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Reinvestment risk

Also written Re-investment risk

The risk that the coupons or other intermediate cash flows from an investment have to be put back to work at a lower rate than the original investment earned, pulling the total return below the promised yield.

In plain language

A bond paying 9% does not actually deliver 9% unless every coupon it throws off can be reinvested at 9% too. If rates have fallen by the time the money arrives, the coupon goes back to work at 6%, and the total return over the life of the holding is less than the yield printed on the contract.

That gap is reinvestment risk. It is unusual among risks in that it hurts when things appear to be going well — a falling rate environment lifts bond prices and simultaneously wrecks the reinvestment assumption.

How it works

The workbook states the direction in two lines:

  • If interest rates rise, reinvestment risk reduces or is eliminated.
  • If interest rates fall, reinvestment risk increases.

It sits in direct opposition to price risk. Rates rise, the bond's price falls but the coupons reinvest better; rates fall, the price rises but the coupons reinvest worse. That opposition is the entire reason duration matching exists.

The workbook's remedy is to choose the cumulative option available in most debt investments, so the issuer compounds the income internally and there is no intermediate cash flow to reinvest — with the warning that in a marketable security this exposes the holder to higher price volatility, because all the money now arrives at the end.

Chapter 12 classifies reinvestment risk as a systematic risk, alongside market, inflation, exchange rate and interest rate risk — it cannot be diversified away, because the rate that hurts one bond's coupons hurts everyone's.

The formula

Terminal value of a reinvested coupon stream
    = Coupon × [ (1 + r)^n − 1 ] ÷ r

where r is the actual rate at which coupons are reinvested — not the coupon rate, and not the YTM.

A worked example

An investor puts Rs 1 crore into a 5-year bond paying a 9% annual coupon, so Rs 9 lakh arrives each year.

If rates hold at 9%, the coupon stream compounds to

9 × [ (1.09^5 − 1) ÷ 0.09 ] = 9 × 5.9847 = Rs 53.86 lakh

Total at the end of five years: Rs 153.86 lakh.

If rates fall to 6% shortly after purchase, the same coupons compound to

9 × [ (1.06^5 − 1) ÷ 0.06 ] = 9 × 5.6371 = Rs 50.73 lakh

Total: Rs 150.73 lakh. The shortfall is Rs 3.13 lakh, and nothing went wrong — the issuer paid every rupee it promised, on time.

The investor still reports a 9% coupon. The realised return on the Rs 1 crore is not 9%; it is what turns Rs 100 lakh into Rs 150.73 lakh over five years, about 8.56% a year. The missing 44 basis points is reinvestment risk, and it was collected by falling interest rates, not by any default.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 12 (Fundamentals of Risk and Return) defines reinvestment risk in the list of risks an investor faces, immediately after call risk, and then classifies it as systematic in the systematic-versus-unsystematic section. Expect the two directional statements as a direct question — rates up means risk down, rates down means risk up — and the pairing with call risk.

Common exam traps

  • Rising rates reduce reinvestment risk. Candidates reverse this because rising rates are bad for bond prices. Price risk and reinvestment risk move in opposite directions.
  • The workbook classes reinvestment risk as systematic, not unsystematic. It is not diversifiable — it belongs with market, inflation, exchange rate and interest rate risk.
  • It has nothing to do with the issuer's creditworthiness. A government bond has full reinvestment risk and no credit risk.
  • Call risk makes it worse, not separate. An issuer calls a high-coupon bond exactly when rates have fallen, forcing the whole principal to be reinvested at the new lower rate.
  • A zero-coupon or cumulative structure removes it — there are no intermediate cash flows — but the workbook notes this raises price volatility in a marketable security.
  • YTM quietly assumes every coupon is reinvested at the YTM itself. That assumption is what reinvestment risk breaks.

Check yourself

  1. 1.What happens to reinvestment risk when interest rates rise?

    1. a)It increases sharply
    2. b)It reduces or is eliminated
    3. c)It is unaffected by interest rate movements
    4. d)It becomes a systematic risk only at that point
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) It reduces or is eliminated

    The workbook states the rule in two lines: "If Interest rate rises, reinvestment risk reduces or is eliminated. If Interest rate falls, reinvestment risk increases."

    The mechanism is simple once you see it. Reinvestment risk is the risk that the coupons you receive have to go back to work at a lower rate than the bond itself pays. If market rates have gone up, that worry disappears — you reinvest at a better rate than before.

    Option A is the answer most candidates give, because "rates rising" feels like bad news for bond investors generally. It is bad news for bond prices, which is interest rate risk — a different thing. Option C is wrong because the risk is defined entirely by rate levels. Option D confuses classification with magnitude: reinvestment risk is on the systematic list at all times.

  2. 2.Which of the following is classified by the workbook as an UNSYSTEMATIC risk?

    1. a)Interest rate risk
    2. b)Reinvestment risk
    3. c)Credit risk
    4. d)Inflation risk
    Show the answer

    Answer: (c) Credit risk

    The workbook gives two explicit lists. Systematic (undiversifiable): market risk, inflation risk, exchange rate risk, interest rate risk and reinvestment risk. Unsystematic (diversifiable): credit risk, business risk and liquidity risks.

    Credit risk is unsystematic because an investor can reduce it by changing what she holds — the workbook's Ashima "can reduce credit risk by increasing the proportion of highly-rated bonds in her portfolio".

    Interest rate risk, reinvestment risk and inflation risk are all on the systematic list. Interest rate risk is the one to be most careful with: if rates rise, the price of every bond Ashima holds falls, so no amount of rearranging within bonds helps.

  3. 3.Which statement about market risk is correct as per the workbook?

    1. a)Deposits and small savings schemes have no market risk, but they also do not gain in value due to market factors
    2. b)Market risk affects all investments equally, including bank deposits
    3. c)Market risk arises only in equity shares, not in bonds or gold
    4. d)Market risk can be eliminated by holding a diversified portfolio of equities
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) Deposits and small savings schemes have no market risk, but they also do not gain in value due to market factors

    The workbook: "Market risk affects those investments which have an active secondary market, and the transactions happen at current applicable prices, such as equity, bonds, gold, real estate, among others. Investments such as deposits or small savings schemes are not marketable securities, and the investor gets a pre-defined amount on maturity. They have no market risk; but they also do not gain in value (or appreciate), due to market factors."

    Market risk is "the risk of the loss of value in an investment because of adverse price movements in an asset in the market". The workbook's examples are a rate rise pushing bond prices down, and a rupee appreciation cutting the earnings expectations of exporters.

    Why the others are wrong:

    • Option B contradicts the carve-out above. Non-marketable deposits carry no market risk.
    • Option C is too narrow. The workbook lists equity, bonds, gold, real estate as exposed.
    • Option D contradicts the classification. "Market risk, Inflation risk, exchange rate risk, interest rate risk and reinvestment risk are systematic risks", and systematic risks "cannot be eliminated through diversification."

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XV

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