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Systematic risk

Also written Non-diversifiable risk · Undiversifiable risk

The part of an investment's risk that comes from economy-wide forces moving every asset at once — it cannot be diversified away, and it is the only risk the market pays you to carry.

In plain language

Things go wrong in two different ways.

Some are about one company: a factory burns down, a founder leaves, an order is cancelled, the accounts turn out to be false. Hold thirty shares and these cancel out — one company's disaster is another's windfall.

Others hit everything at once: interest rates rise, a monsoon fails, a global credit market seizes, a war begins. No amount of diversification escapes these, because there is nowhere within the market to hide. That is systematic risk.

How it works

Total risk splits in two, and the split has a direct consequence for what an investor is paid.

Unsystematic risk can be removed for free, simply by holding more names — most of the benefit arrives by about 15 to 25 shares spread across sectors. Because it can be removed at no cost, the market does not compensate anybody for bearing it.

Systematic risk cannot be removed at any price, so it is the only risk that carries a return. This is the entire foundation of CAPM: expected return is a function of beta, which measures systematic risk alone, and standard deviation — total risk — does not appear in the equation at all.

The formula

Total risk = Systematic risk + Unsystematic risk

Systematic component of a share's risk = β × σ(market)

A worked example

An investor holds Rs 50 lakh across four IT services companies and calls it a diversified portfolio. It is not: every holding is exposed to the same rupee-dollar rate, the same US client budgets and the same visa regime.

Say the portfolio's standard deviation is 24% against the Nifty's 16%, with a beta of 1.15.

A company-specific shock. One holding loses its largest client and falls 30%. At a 25% weight that costs the portfolio 7.5%, or Rs 3.75 lakh. Spread the same money across twenty shares in six sectors and the identical event costs 1.5%, or Rs 75,000. The risk was removable, and the investor chose not to remove it.

A market shock. The RBI raises rates unexpectedly and the Nifty falls 12%. At a beta of 1.15 the portfolio is expected to fall 13.8%, or Rs 6.9 lakh — and here the twenty-share portfolio fares no better. There is no arrangement of Indian equities that avoids this loss. That is the difference between the two risks, in rupees.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 12 (Fundamentals of Risk and Return) sets out the two components, and the distinction then carries the whole of CAPM. Expect classification questions — you are given events and asked which are systematic — and the conceptual point that diversification cannot reduce systematic risk, which is examined almost every sitting.

Common exam traps

  • Classify by cause, not by size. A strike at one company's plant is unsystematic however large the loss; a 25 basis point repo change is systematic however small.
  • Diversification reduces unsystematic risk only. Any option claiming it reduces or eliminates systematic risk is wrong.
  • Beta measures systematic risk; standard deviation measures total risk. The two are not interchangeable.
  • "Systematic" is not "systemic". Systemic risk is the risk of the financial system itself failing — a related idea with a different meaning.
  • Twenty shares in one sector is not a diversified portfolio. Correlation is what matters, not the count.

Check yourself

  1. 1.Which of the following is classified by the workbook as an UNSYSTEMATIC risk?

    1. a)Interest rate risk
    2. b)Reinvestment risk
    3. c)Credit risk
    4. d)Inflation risk
    Show the answer

    Answer: (c) Credit risk

    The workbook gives two explicit lists. Systematic (undiversifiable): market risk, inflation risk, exchange rate risk, interest rate risk and reinvestment risk. Unsystematic (diversifiable): credit risk, business risk and liquidity risks.

    Credit risk is unsystematic because an investor can reduce it by changing what she holds — the workbook's Ashima "can reduce credit risk by increasing the proportion of highly-rated bonds in her portfolio".

    Interest rate risk, reinvestment risk and inflation risk are all on the systematic list. Interest rate risk is the one to be most careful with: if rates rise, the price of every bond Ashima holds falls, so no amount of rearranging within bonds helps.

  2. 2.An investor has placed a significant portion of his wealth in one particular investment and has not adequately diversified. Which risk-adjusted return measure is appropriate for appraising that investment?

    1. a)Treynor ratio
    2. b)Sharpe ratio
    3. c)Jensen's Alpha
    4. d)Modified duration
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) Sharpe ratio

    The workbook assigns the two ratios to two different investors, and the exam tests exactly this split.

    Sharpe Ratio is appropriate for appraising the investment performance of individuals who have invested a significant portion of their wealth in a particular investment, and have not adequately diversified.

    Treynor Ratio is appropriate for individuals who have adequately diversified their wealth into multiple asset classes.

    The logic is worth carrying rather than memorising. Sharpe divides by standard deviation, which measures total risk — and an undiversified investor still carries unsystematic risk, so total risk is what matters to him. Treynor divides by beta, which measures only systematic risk — appropriate once diversification has removed the rest.

    Option C measures excess return over the CAPM expectation, which does not depend on how the investor's own wealth is arranged. Option D is a bond interest-rate sensitivity measure, not a risk-adjusted return measure at all.

  3. 3.Which statement about market risk is correct as per the workbook?

    1. a)Deposits and small savings schemes have no market risk, but they also do not gain in value due to market factors
    2. b)Market risk affects all investments equally, including bank deposits
    3. c)Market risk arises only in equity shares, not in bonds or gold
    4. d)Market risk can be eliminated by holding a diversified portfolio of equities
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) Deposits and small savings schemes have no market risk, but they also do not gain in value due to market factors

    The workbook: "Market risk affects those investments which have an active secondary market, and the transactions happen at current applicable prices, such as equity, bonds, gold, real estate, among others. Investments such as deposits or small savings schemes are not marketable securities, and the investor gets a pre-defined amount on maturity. They have no market risk; but they also do not gain in value (or appreciate), due to market factors."

    Market risk is "the risk of the loss of value in an investment because of adverse price movements in an asset in the market". The workbook's examples are a rate rise pushing bond prices down, and a rupee appreciation cutting the earnings expectations of exporters.

    Why the others are wrong:

    • Option B contradicts the carve-out above. Non-marketable deposits carry no market risk.
    • Option C is too narrow. The workbook lists equity, bonds, gold, real estate as exposed.
    • Option D contradicts the classification. "Market risk, Inflation risk, exchange rate risk, interest rate risk and reinvestment risk are systematic risks", and systematic risks "cannot be eliminated through diversification."

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XXI-B

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