NISM Professor

CAPM

Also written Capital Asset Pricing Model

A model that prices the return an investor should demand from a share: the risk-free rate plus beta times the market risk premium.

In plain language

CAPM answers: what return should I demand for owning this particular share?

Start with what a government security pays, since that is available without risk. Then add compensation for taking equity risk — but only for the part of the risk that cannot be diversified away. Beta measures how much of that undiversifiable risk this share carries. A share that swings twice as hard as the index earns twice the premium.

The answer is the cost of equity: the discount rate for an equity valuation, and the hurdle a company must beat to be creating value.

The formula

Cost of equity = Rf + β × (Rm − Rf)

  Rf        risk-free rate — the yield on a government security
  β         beta, the share's sensitivity to the index
  Rm − Rf   market risk premium, the extra return equities pay over the risk-free rate

A worked example

Valuing an Indian private bank:

  • Risk-free rate: 10-year government security yield, 6.9%
  • Beta: 1.25 (the bank moves 25% harder than the Nifty)
  • Market risk premium: 6.0%
Cost of equity = 6.9% + 1.25 × 6.0% = 6.9% + 7.5% = 14.4%

Every rupee of the bank's future cash flow must be discounted at 14.4%. A rupee ten years out is worth 26 paise today.

Now take a consumer staples company with a beta of 0.65:

Cost of equity = 6.9% + 0.65 × 6.0% = 10.8%

A rupee ten years out is worth 36 paise — nearly 40% more. The same cash flow is worth substantially more when it is more predictable, and that is the entire economic content of the model.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 10 introduces CAPM as the source of the discount rate for equity valuation, and Chapter 12 supplies the risk concepts behind it. Numerical questions usually give three of the four quantities and ask for the fourth.

Common exam traps

  • The market risk premium is Rm − Rf, not Rm. Multiplying beta by the whole market return is the classic mistake and every option list contains the answer it produces.
  • CAPM prices systematic risk only. Company-specific risk is assumed diversified away and earns no premium — which is why a single risky stock in a portfolio of one is not compensated for that concentration.
  • A beta above 1 raises the cost of equity and therefore lowers the valuation. Higher demanded return, lower present value.
  • Beta is measured from past prices. It describes how a share has behaved, not how it must behave.

Check yourself

  1. 1.An investor has placed a significant portion of his wealth in one particular investment and has not adequately diversified. Which risk-adjusted return measure is appropriate for appraising that investment?

    1. a)Treynor ratio
    2. b)Sharpe ratio
    3. c)Jensen's Alpha
    4. d)Modified duration
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) Sharpe ratio

    The workbook assigns the two ratios to two different investors, and the exam tests exactly this split.

    Sharpe Ratio is appropriate for appraising the investment performance of individuals who have invested a significant portion of their wealth in a particular investment, and have not adequately diversified.

    Treynor Ratio is appropriate for individuals who have adequately diversified their wealth into multiple asset classes.

    The logic is worth carrying rather than memorising. Sharpe divides by standard deviation, which measures total risk — and an undiversified investor still carries unsystematic risk, so total risk is what matters to him. Treynor divides by beta, which measures only systematic risk — appropriate once diversification has removed the rest.

    Option C measures excess return over the CAPM expectation, which does not depend on how the investor's own wealth is arranged. Option D is a bond interest-rate sensitivity measure, not a risk-adjusted return measure at all.

  2. 2.A portfolio returned 18%. The risk-free rate is 6.5%, the market return is 12%, and the portfolio beta is 1.30. What is Jensen's Alpha?

    1. a)+4.35%
    2. b)+6.00%
    3. c)+11.50%
    4. d)−1.30%
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) +4.35%

    Jensen's Alpha = Return on portfolio − (Risk free rate + β × market risk premium)

    The step candidates skip is computing the market risk premium, which is the market return minus the risk-free rate:

    12% − 6.5% = 5.5%

    CAPM expected return = 6.5 + (1.30 × 5.5) = 6.5 + 7.15 = 13.65%

    Jensen's Alpha = 18 − 13.65 = +4.35%

    Option B is 18 − 12 — the crude "beat the market by 6 points" answer, which ignores beta and the risk-free rate entirely. Option C is simply the risk premium, 18 − 6.5, with no risk adjustment at all. Option D has no basis.

    The error that produces a genuinely wrong working is using the market return (12%) where the formula says market risk premium (5.5%): 18 − (6.5 + 1.30 × 12) = −4.1%. A premium is always measured over the risk-free rate.

    Higher Jensen's Alpha is better. But note it uses beta, so it says nothing about the portfolio's total risk — a fund can have a strong alpha and still be an unsuitable holding for an undiversified investor.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XV

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