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Discounted Cash Flow

Also written DCF · Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) · DCF valuation · DCF model

A valuation method that estimates the cash a business will generate in future years and converts each year back to what it is worth today.

In plain language

A rupee next year is worth less than a rupee today, because today's rupee can be invested. Discounted cash flow applies that idea to a whole business.

Forecast the cash for each of the next several years, work out what each of those future amounts is worth in today's money, add them up, and add a terminal value for everything after the forecast period. The total is what the business is worth.

How it works

Four steps, in order:

  1. Forecast free cash flow for an explicit period, usually 5 to 10 years.
  2. Pick a discount rate — the cost of equity from CAPM if discounting cash flows to equity holders, the weighted average cost of capital if discounting cash flows to the whole firm.
  3. Discount each year back to the present.
  4. Add a terminal value for the period beyond the forecast, then discount that too.

On a typical model the terminal value is 60% to 80% of the total answer. So a DCF is mostly a statement about what happens after the years you actually forecast — which is worth remembering before treating the output as precise.

The formula

             CF₁        CF₂              CFₙ + TVₙ
Value =  ───────── + ───────── + ... + ─────────────
          (1 + r)¹   (1 + r)²            (1 + r)ⁿ

Terminal value (Gordon growth):   TVₙ = CFₙ × (1 + g) ÷ (r − g)

where r is the discount rate and g the perpetual growth rate, which must be below r or the formula returns a negative value.

A worked example

A speciality chemicals company generates Rs 200 crore of free cash flow this year, expected to grow 10% a year for five years, then 4% for ever. Discount rate 12%.

YearFree cash flow (Rs cr)Discount factor at 12%Present value (Rs cr)
1220.00.893196.4
2242.00.797192.9
3266.20.712189.5
4292.80.636186.2
5322.10.567182.6
Sum of years 1–5947.6

Terminal value at end of year 5:

TV = 322.1 × 1.04 ÷ (0.12 − 0.04) = 334.98 ÷ 0.08 = Rs 4,187 crore
PV of TV = 4,187 × 0.567 = Rs 2,374 crore

Enterprise value = 947.6 + 2,374 = Rs 3,322 crore, of which the terminal value is 71%.

Change perpetual growth from 4% to 5% and the terminal value jumps to Rs 4,830 crore — the whole valuation rises about 19% on a one-point change in a number nobody can know.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 10 (Valuation Principles) is where this is taught and it is one of the most heavily examined chapters in the paper. Expect present-value arithmetic, the Gordon growth formula, and conceptual questions on why the terminal value dominates.

Common exam traps

  • Match the cash flow to the discount rate. FCFE is discounted at the cost of equity and gives equity value directly. FCFF is discounted at WACC and gives enterprise value, from which debt must still be subtracted. Mixing them is the most common error in the chapter.
  • Perpetual growth must be below the discount rate. It should also not exceed long-run nominal GDP growth — no company outgrows its economy for ever.
  • The terminal value is discounted by the year-n factor, not the year n+1 factor.
  • A DCF is a sensitivity exercise, not an answer. Always present a range.

Check yourself

  1. 1.A bond pays 9% interest a year and will be redeemed at its face value of ₹1,00,000 at the end of year 10. Investors had expected a 9% return for this maturity and credit quality, but that expectation now rises to 10%. What happens to the bond's value?

    1. a)It stays at ₹1,00,000, since the coupon and the redemption amount are fixed
    2. b)It rises above ₹1,00,000, since investors now demand more
    3. c)It falls below ₹1,00,000, since the fixed cash flows are discounted at a higher rate
    4. d)It falls to ₹90,000 exactly, in line with the 1% change in rates
    Show the answer

    Answer: (c) It falls below ₹1,00,000, since the fixed cash flows are discounted at a higher rate

    This is the workbook's own introduction to discounted cash flow. "The value of the bond is the present value of all the future cash flows discounted at prevailing interest rates." When the coupon and the expected rate are both 9%, the value "would turn out to be face value viz Rs. 100,000."

    Then the rule: "If expected rate of return by investors is higher (lower) than 9%, then bond would have value less (more) than Rs. 100,000." The cash flows stay the same, but each one is divided by a bigger discount factor, so their present value falls. The chapter's first sample question checks the same thing: if interest rates in the economy rise, the price of the bond falls.

    Why the others are wrong:

    • Option A confuses fixed cash flows with a fixed value. The amounts are fixed, but what they are worth today depends on the rate.
    • Option B has the direction backwards. A higher required return means a lower price.
    • Option D invents a precise one-for-one rule. The workbook gives only the direction here, and a 1% change in the rate does not cut the price by exactly 10%.

    The chapter then applies the same idea to equity. Coupons become dividends and redemption becomes sale proceeds. The difference is that for equity "quantum of cash flows (dividends or sales price) and their timings are unknown and uncertain."

  2. 2.Besides the perpetual growth model, what other method does the workbook allow for calculating a terminal value?

    1. a)Adding up the undiscounted cash flows of the high growth phase
    2. b)Multiplying EBITDA (or EBIT) at the end of the high growth period by an appropriate EV/EBITDA (or EV/EBIT) multiple taken from comparable firms
    3. c)Using the book value of equity at the end of the forecast period
    4. d)Multiplying the final year's dividend by the cost of equity
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) Multiplying EBITDA (or EBIT) at the end of the high growth period by an appropriate EV/EBITDA (or EV/EBIT) multiple taken from comparable firms

    The workbook's alternative: "terminal value can also be calculated by taking into consideration expected sale value of the business at the end of high growth phase. This is typically done by multiplying EBITDA (or EBIT) at the end of the high growth period by the appropriate EV/EBITDA (or EV/EBIT) multiple. The multiple is decided based on that of comparable firms."

    That links the two halves of the chapter. The DCF borrows a relative valuation multiple for its final stage.

    Whatever method is used, one rule still applies: "The terminal value is added to the cash flows for the growth or projection period, and then discounted to the present value."

    Why the others are wrong:

    • Option A adds up the forecast years. It says nothing about value beyond them, and it ignores discounting completely.
    • Option C uses a historical-cost balance sheet figure. That is not a sale value, and the workbook warns that for capital-intensive firms book values "often do not reflect the fair value".
    • Option D is not a valuation formula. Multiplying a cash flow by a rate gives a smaller cash flow, not a capital value.
  3. 3.According to the workbook’s comparison of technical and fundamental analysis, which pairing is correct?

    1. a)Technical analysis — uses historic price and volume data, is geared to short/medium-term trading strategies, and is followed by traders, chartists, speculators and short-term investors
    2. b)Technical analysis — assumes that market prices may at times deviate from their intrinsic values
    3. c)Fundamental analysis — its objective is to forecast price movements and trading opportunities
    4. d)Fundamental analysis — its main tools are chart patterns and indicators such as RSI, MACD and OBV
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) Technical analysis — uses historic price and volume data, is geared to short/medium-term trading strategies, and is followed by traders, chartists, speculators and short-term investors

    The workbook’s comparison table lines up each feature. For technical analysis: data source — "historic price and volume data"; time horizon — "short/medium term trading strategies"; followed by — "traders, chartists, speculators, short-term investors". Option A combines three rows correctly.

    The others take a row from one column and hang it on the other. Option B is the fundamental assumption — "at times market prices may deviate from their intrinsic values"; the technical assumption is that the "current market price captures all the information; trend is likely to continue". Option C is the technical objective; fundamental analysis aims to "identify undervalued or overvalued assets". Option D lists the technical toolkit; the fundamental tools are "cash flow statements, DCF valuation, SWOT analysis, ratio analysis", and fundamental analysis is followed by "fund managers, portfolio managers, value investors, long-term investors".

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series XIX-A

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