NISM Professor

Downside risk

Also written Downside · Loss risk

The probability of a loss on account of falling asset prices in changing market conditions — the half of volatility investors actually mind, measured by maximum drawdown and value at risk.

In plain language

Standard deviation punishes a fund for going up as hard as for going down. No investor feels that way.

Downside risk is the probability of a loss on account of reducing asset prices in changing market conditions — the workbook's own footnote definition, and the idea behind the two measures that follow it in the chapter: maximum drawdown, which looks backwards at the worst fall that actually happened, and value at risk, which looks forwards at the worst fall expected at a given confidence level.

How it works

Maximum drawdown (MDD) is the peak-to-trough decline in the assets under management of an AIF during a specific reporting period, usually quoted as a percentage of the peak value achieved in that period.

It measures the extent of the greatest loss until a new peak is created — and the workbook is careful about what it does not do: it does not take into account how often the portfolio experiences large losses, and it does not indicate how long it will take an investor to recover. Investors would prefer a zero MDD, but the number is meaningless without the time period being considered and the performance of a benchmark over the same period.

Value at risk (VaR) is defined as the maximum amount of expected loss for a fund over a given time frame at a pre-defined confidence level. If the 95% one-month VaR of a fund is Rs 1 crore, there is a 95% probability that over the next month the fund will not lose more than Rs 1 crore. Its limitation is precise: while quantifying the maximum potential loss, VaR fails to indicate the size of the loss to be borne beyond that confidence level.

Downside risk also runs through the risk register itself. Leverage magnifies it; concentration makes a single name capable of producing it; and the workbook notes that certain risks — macro-economic, legal and regulatory, operational, country-specific and cyber security — are simply not measurable, whatever the metric says.

The formula

Maximum Drawdown = (Trough Value - Peak Value) / Peak Value

Both values are taken within the stated reporting period; the result is negative.

A worked example

The workbook's own case, for the quarter ended 31 March 2020.

DateFund PQR (AUM, Rs crore)NIFTY 50
1 January 2020560.4512,202.15
15 January 2020585.9612,430.50
1 February 2020584.2311,661.85
14 February 2020632.33 (peak)12,113.45
1 March 2020596.2911,132.75
23 March 2020564.357,610.25 (trough)
31 March 2020545.61 (trough)8,597.75
Fund PQR   MDD = (545.61 - 632.33) / 632.33  =  -13.71%
NIFTY 50   MDD = (7,610.25 - 12,430.50) / 12,430.50  =  -38.78%

In rupees, the fund gave back Rs 86.72 crore of AUM from its February peak. Read alone, that looks like a bad quarter. Read against a benchmark that fell 38.78% over the same window, it says the manager took roughly a third of the market's downside.

That comparison is the entire lesson. Change the reporting period to the full year and both numbers change; drop the benchmark column and the fund's number cannot be judged at all.

Now the forward-looking view. If the same fund reports a 95% one-month VaR of Rs 12 crore on a Rs 545 crore AUM, it is saying there is a 95% chance of losing no more than about 2.2% in a month. It is not saying the loss in the remaining 5% of months is Rs 12 crore — March 2020 is exactly the month that lives in that tail, and VaR is silent about its size.

Why NISM asks about it

Chapter 9 defines downside risk in the footnote to section 9.6.3 (maximum drawdown) and returns to it in section 9.9.3, where value at risk is introduced as a measure used to quantify the downside risk of an AIF. Expect an MDD computation from a table of AUM values, a benchmark comparison, and the standard VaR interpretation sentence.

Common exam traps

  • MDD is period-dependent. Change the reporting window and the peak, the trough and the answer all change.
  • A large MDD is not automatically bad. The workbook's own conclusion is that -13.71% was good, because the benchmark fell -38.78%.
  • MDD says nothing about frequency or recovery time — only about the depth of the worst fall until a new peak.
  • VaR at 95% does not cap the loss. It is silent on the size of the loss in the 5% tail; that is its stated limitation.
  • Standard deviation measures both tails; downside risk is only one of them, which is why the two can rank funds differently.
  • Peak and trough are read off AUM for a fund and off index values for a benchmark — do not mix a fund's NAV per unit with its AUM in the same computation.

Check yourself

  1. 1.Fund PQR's AUM peaked at INR 632.33 crore and troughed at INR 545.61 crore in the March 2020 quarter, while the NIFTY50 fell from 12,430.50 to 7,610.25. What do the maximum drawdowns show?

    1. a)Fund PQR fell 13.71 per cent against the benchmark's 38.78 per cent, so its downside risk was substantially lower than the market's
    2. b)Fund PQR fell 38.78 per cent, worse than the benchmark
    3. c)Both fell by the same proportion
    4. d)Maximum drawdown cannot be compared against a benchmark
    Show the answer

    Answer: (a) Fund PQR fell 13.71 per cent against the benchmark's 38.78 per cent, so its downside risk was substantially lower than the market's

    MDD = (Trough Value − Peak Value) / Peak Value. For the fund: (545.61 − 632.33) / 632.33 = −13.71%. For the index: (7610.25 − 12430.50) / 12430.50 = −38.78%. The workbook's reading: although the Maximum Drawdown for Fund PQR is high at −13.71%, it is much lower than Maximum Drawdown for its benchmark, NIFTY50, which is −38.78%. This shows that even when capital markets were facing the downside risk, due to external factors, the downside risk for Fund PQR was lower than the downside risk for the overall market. This is exactly why the workbook insists on context: it is important to pay attention to the time period being considered in the reporting period and the performance of a benchmark over the same time period. And remember MDD's two blind spots — it does not take into consideration how often the portfolio experiences large losses and it does not indicate the length of time it shall take an investor to be able to recover the loss.

  2. 2.Which statement about venture debt is correct?

    1. a)It is available to any start-up and is always secured against assets
    2. b)It is lending to start-ups that have already successfully raised institutional venture capital equity, carries a higher rate than commercial loans, is typically unsecured, and is usually repaid in about 2-3 years from later equity rounds
    3. c)It is classified under the AIF Regulations as a separate category of fund
    4. d)It replaces the need for equity financing entirely
    Show the answer

    Answer: (b) It is lending to start-ups that have already successfully raised institutional venture capital equity, carries a higher rate than commercial loans, is typically unsecured, and is usually repaid in about 2-3 years from later equity rounds

    venture debt which is a specialised form of lending to start-ups that have successfully raised institutional venture capital equity... Venture debt usually carries a higher rate of interest than normal commercial loans to incorporate the higher risk associated with start-ups and is typically unsecured... It is usually paid back in about 2-3 years by financing the repayment with subsequent rounds of equity financing. Option (c) is expressly wrong: The AIF Regulations do not classify venture debt funds as a separate category but as a part of venture capital funds. And it complements rather than replaces equity — it complements venture equity financing very effectively and helps to mitigate equity downside risk as well.

Where this is taught

Free preparation for NISM Series X-A

Related terms

← All terms
Something look wrong? Report it